“For all the promises of God in him are yea, and in him Amen, unto the glory of God.”2 Corinthians 1:20
1.) Are the words of God given in the original Greek and Hebrew promises to God’s people?
a declaration or assurance that one will do a particular thing or that a particular thing will happen:
It seems so and in the following ways: 1.) God has promised to preserve His words in the mouth of His people (Isa. 59:21). 2.) God has promised to preserve His words to the very jot and tittle (Matt. 5:18). 3.) God has spoken with the force of certainty that all Scripture is inspired (2 Tim. 3:16). God says that His words are right words (Psalm 33:4, and pure words (Psalm 12:6). These are all declarations by God that His words were, are, and will be preserved, inspired, right, and pure and that He will ensure that such is the case.
Every word of God implicitly carries the qualitative statement, “This word is divine and true, and always will be.”
2.) Given the above, can any of God’s words be regarded as anything other than “yes and amen”?
Albert Barnes, commenting on 1 Cor 1:20, writes,
“Are yea – Shall all be certainly fulfilled. There shall be no vacillation on the part of God; no fickleness; no abandoning of his gracious intention.
And in him amen – In Revelation 3:14, the Lord Jesus is called the “Amen.” The word means true, faithful, certain. And the expression here means that all the promises which are made to people through a Redeemer shall be certainly fulfilled. They are promises which are confirmed and established, and which shall by no means fail.”I Corinthians 1:20
For a certainty, the giving of Scripture is part of God’s gracious intention both in the saving of His people and the sanctifying of His people. Furthermore, the Redeemer will fulfill the promises He made in Isa. 59:21 and Matthew 5:18. In the eyes of God and our Redeemer, every word of Scripture is yes and amen. As such, can any of God’s words be regarded as anything other than yes and amen?
It seems the answer is, no. Certainly God does not know His words to be not His words nor does He know His words to be “sufficiently reliable” words. If God knows His words to be “yes and amen” and so does not speak of His words as not His words or as merely sufficiently reliable words, by what authority do Christians claim God’s words to not be God’s words? By what authority do Christians claim that God’s words are merely sufficiently reliable? Why don’t Christians treat every word of God with yes and amen?
How are such claims asserting doubt and sufficient reliability be understood in terms of obedience to the will of Father when the Father Himself won’t call His own words sufficiently reliable while Christians do?
***Remember boys and girls. No major doctrine of orthodoxy or orthopraxy is at stake in the enterprise of modern textual criticism.***