Is It Wrong to Believe Only One Version of the Bible is God’s Word?

1.) Is it morally wrong to believe only one version of the Bible is the Word of God?

If yes, then the Western believing community has been morally wrong for holding to the KJV for ~400 years as the standard sacred text.
If no, then those who hold to only one version of the Bible hold a mutually exclusive doctrine when comparting the beliefs of those who hold to one version and those who hold to many versions.

2.) If the one’s holding to one version of the Bible is a holding to a mutually exclusive doctrine, is it morally wrong for said people to confront those who do not hold to one version?

If yes, then holding to either one version or holding to a mutually exclusive belief are morally wrong. Neither seem to be demonstrably morally wrong.
If no, then those who hold to one version in a mutually exclusive way are compelled in good faith to confront those who hold to multiple versions.

3.) We are told that many versions are “sufficiently reliable.” Is the “doctrine of sufficient reliability” a Scriptural doctrine?

If yes, where is the explicit Scriptural teaching on this doctrine or what good and necessary consequences from Scripture teach the doctrine of sufficient reliability?
If no, the Scriptures do not attest to themselves as merely sufficiently reliable, thus the doctrines of men are usurping the authority of Scripture over itself.

4.) Given that the Scriptures speak of one Lord, on faith, one baptism, is it rational to infer by good and necessary consequences that there is one revelation of that Lord, one faith that comes by hearing that one word of God, and one Spirit that speaks through that one word of God?

If no, then what Scriptural substantiation do we have for the negative answer of (1)?
If yes, the mutually exclusive holding of one version of the Bible is the only exegetically supported position given the negative answer of (3).